Hegel defined
tragedy as an impossible tension between two competing goods. Aristotle defined
tragedy as the passage of a good (but not too good) man who comes to misery and
ruin through an error in judgment. Using their full definitions, and specific
scenes from the play to support your view, argue which definition is a better
one for understanding the tragedy at the heart of Sophocles Antigone. You
should spend at least one paragraph on Aristotles fit with the plot of the
play and one on Hegels fit. (Probably you would want to spend two paragraphs
on whichever definition works less well.) Use Aristotles Poetics for his
definition of tragedy, and the introduction of Antigone for Hegels definition.
Please use one additional source beyond these (for example, an academic article
about defining tragedy in Antigone). You can follow one of the
references used in the introduction or notes to find your third source.